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Calcium is one of the most important minerals in your body. It is essential for the proper functioning of muscles, nerves, and the heart and is required in blood clotting and in formation of bones. About 99% of calcium is found in the bones while the remainder circulates in the blood. Morning, fasting sample is desired.
CA-125 is a substance produced by the fallopian tubes, the endometrium, and the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity). CA-125 is a helpful tumor marker for ovarian cancer. CA-125 levels may not rise above the normal range in all women who have ovarian cancer but if present, further testing through your health care provider is suggested.
This test is used to detect abnormal substances or cellular material in the urine. Clinical conditions involving the urinary tract and/or treatment options can be made using a urinalysis.
This test is valuable in the detection of ovulation. It can also be used to monitor progesterone replacement therapy and to evaluate the risk for early miscarriage.
Estradiol is the most active of endogenous estrogens. This test is of value when evaluating menstrual and fertility problems in adult females.
This test provides a complete blood count along with an added test to diagnose an illness affecting your immune system, such as an infection, or diseases that affect your white blood cells, such as leukemias and platelet test to determine your risk for bleeding. This test is generally used to check an individual's overall health. Test includes: Hematocrit; hemoglobin; mean corpuscular volume (MCV); mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH); mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC); red cell distribution width (RDW); percentage and absolute differential counts; platelet count (RBC); red cell count; white blood cell count (WBC).
Vitamin D is a group of fat-soluble prohormones (meaning that it has no hormone activity itself). Vitamin D is converted to the active hormone 1,25-Dihydroxy through a tightly regulated synthesis mechanism. Vitamin D plays an important role in the maintenance of organ systems. Vitamin D regulates the calcium and phosphorus levels in the blood by promoting their absorption from food in the intestines, and by promoting re-absorption of calcium in the kidneys. It promotes bone formation and mineralization and is essential in the development of an intact and strong skeleton. Although, at very high levels it will promote the resorption of bone. Vitamin D also inhibits parathyroid hormone secretion from the parathyroid gland.
N-Telopeptide Cross-Links (NTx), Serum is used to monitor antiresorptive therapy with estrogen and calcium supplementation as well as drug therapy.
The basic chemistry panels used to determine overall health of a woman. No food for 12 hours prior to testing.
A Qualitative hCG test is a serum test used to confirm pregnancy. The results of the test are reported as positive or negative. If needed a Quantitative hCG may be ordered as a follow up test to stage early pregnancy, rule out ectopic pregnancy or may be used to follow for possible threatened miscarriage.
This test is the primary test for the evaluation of galactorrhea (inappropriate lactation). Pituitary function test useful in the detection of prolactin secreting pituitary tumors (microadenomas, macroadenomas) with or without galactorrhea, with or without structural evidence of sellar enlargement. An adult female premenopausal patient having amenorrhea(no menses) and galactorrhea is highly suspect of pituitary prolactinoma and is a candidate for radiologic evaluation of the pituitary as well as serum prolactin levels. Elevated prolactin may be associated with corpus luteum insufficiency or anovulation. The associated results of hyperprolactinemia include amenorrhea(no menses), anovulation, and decreased bone density. Normal prolactin level does not rule out pituitary tumor. Prolactin secretion is episodic and is influenced by stress and by low glucose levels.
Quantitative hCG testing (also frequently called beta hCG), measures the actual amount of hCG present in the blood. It may be ordered to help diagnose an ectopic pregnancy, to help diagnose and monitor a pregnancy that may be failing, and or to monitor a woman after a miscarriage. In addition, a quantitative hCG test may be ordered to diagnose trophoblastic disease or germ cell tumors of the testes or ovary. It may be ordered at regular intervals to monitor the effectiveness of treatment for these conditions and to detect tumor recurrence.
This test is used to monitor exposure to zinc; evaluate suspected nutritional deficiency, especially in enteral or parental nutrition, critically ill and/or burn patients; It is helpful in the evaluation of delayed wound healing and growth retardation. It can be used to follow therapy, for example when higher intravenous zinc doses are used to balance excessive ongoing GI losses in long-term total parenteral nutrition. Also it can be use to follow oral zinc therapy in Wilson disease.
This test is used primarily to evaluate magnesium deficiency. Magnesium deficiency produces neuromuscular disorders. It may cause weakness, tremors, tetany, and convulsions. Hypomagnesemia is associated with hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, long-term hyperalimentation, intravenous therapy, diabetes mellitus, especially during treatment of ketoacidosis; alcoholism and other types of malnutrition; malabsorption; hyperparathyroidism; dialysis; pregnancy; and hyperaldosteronism. Renal loss of magnesium occurs with cis-platinum chemotherapy. Magnesium deficiency is described with cardiac arrhythmias. The concept that magnesium deficiency may cause arrhythmias is of significant concern. Increased magnesium levels relate mostly to patients in renal failure. Marked increases may be found in such patients who take magnesium salts usually found in antacids which contain magnesium. High magnesium levels are manifested by decreased reflexes, somnolence, and heart block.
This test is used to aid in the diagnosis of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In addition 17-a-Hydroxyprogesterone is used to evaluate hirsutism and/or infertility; as well as assess certain adrenal or ovarian tumors with endocrine activity.
This analysis is used to evaluate congenital malformations, mental retardation, growth retardation, infertility, cryptorchidism, hypogonadism, amenorrhea (primary), abnormal/ambiguous genitalia, recurrent miscarriage, Turner syndrome, Klinefelter syndrome, Down syndrome, or other suspected chromosomal disorders.
The PLAC© test is a proprietary test used to selectively screen for risk factors for coronary artery disease and cerebral vascular disease associated with atherosclerosis.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced by the pituitary gland. Along with other hormones (follicle-stimulating hormone and estrogen), LH helps regulate the menstrual cycle in women and causes ovulation to occur. LH is usually measured in both a man and a woman to determine why the couple cannot achieve pregnancy (infertility).
This test is used in the identification of carrier and affected individuals for four mutations associated with Neimann-Pick disease, types A and B. This test detects approximately 95% of the mutations responsible for Niemann-Pick disease, types A and B in Ashkenazi Jews. The mutations detected are L302P, R496L, fsP330, and deltaR608. Other mutations are not detected.
This test is used to measure potassium levels and determine if there is an electrolyte balance. Potassium is an important electrolyte that works to make sure there is enough fluid in the body, help with muscle contractions, and maintain an acid-base balance.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); luteinizing hormone (LH); prolactin
Estrone is a form of Estrogen. It is the major form that is produced following menopause. Adipose tissue (fat) is commonly where estrone is produced. This test is used to evaluate postmenopausal vaginal bleeding due to peripheral conversion of androgenic steroids. Increased estrone levels may be associated with increased levels of circulating androgens and their subsequent peripheral conversion.
Estriol is one of the three major forms of estrogen. This is the major form produced during pregnancy, most of it in the placenta. These levels begin at about the 8th week pregnancy and continue to rise until shortly before delivery. Estriol levels are important in assessing what is going on with the fetus and placenta at any time. This test is used to evaluate fetal distress and placental function in the management of patients facing complications such as pre-eclampsia, fetal growth retardation, diabetes, Rh immunization, choriocarcinoma, and hydatidiform mole.
Antimullerian Hormone is an important hormone in assessing a woman's ovaraian reserve or an estimate of the remaining eggs. This can be very useful for individuals attempting to undergo fertility treatment.
The Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) is a group of 14 specific tests designed to provide an overview of the functioning status of our vital organs and body fluid. The CMP is a frequently ordered panel that gives you important information about the current status of your kidneys, liver, and electrolyte and acid/base balance as well as of your blood sugar and blood proteins. Abnormal results, or a combinations of abnormal results, can indicate a problem that needs to be addressed by you and your health care provider. Test Includes: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT/SGPT); albumin:globulin (A:G) ratio; albumin, serum; alkaline phosphatase, serum; aspartate aminotransferase (AST/SGOT); bilirubin, total; BUN; BUN:creatinine ratio; calcium, serum; carbon dioxide, total; chloride, serum; creatinine, serum; globulin, total; glucose, serum; potassium, serum; protein, total, serum; sodium, serum
This test is used to evaluate unbound (ionized) calcium. Calcium exists in serum in its ionized form or it is bound to organic anions such as phosphate and citrate,or in its most common form bound to proteins (mainly albumin). Of these, the ionized calcium is the physiologically important form. Ionized calcium is most useful clinically when trying to evaluate abnormally high or low serum calcium levels. Measurement of serum ionized calcium provides insight into the effect of total protein and albumin on serum calcium levels. This test is also useful in evaluating an individual that may have conditions that abnormally effect serum proteins. However Total Serum Calcium remains the first line test for evaluation of calcium abnormality. It should also be noted that women have greater circadian variation of ionized calcium than men.
Evaluate for ovarian estrogen producing tumor in the premenarcheal and postmenopausal female; evaluate estrogen excess in males. Estrogen analysis may be helpful in establishing time of ovulation and optimal time for conception. Serial samples must be collected over several days to evaluate baseline and peak total estrogen levels.
Testosterone is a hormone that is used to diagnose several conditions in men and women. Including, LH secretion and Leydig cell, evaluate gonadal and adrenal function, and fertility issues.
Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) is a sex hormone (androgen) created in the adrenal gland. It plays a role in developing male secondary sexual characteristics at puberty and it can be metabolized by the body into more potent androgens such as testosterone. Elevated levels may be found in the adrenogenital syndrome or adrenocortical neoplasms or hyperplasias. In females, DHEA excess causes masculinization. Increased DHEA with normal testosterone provides evidence for an adrenal cause of excessive androgen.
Somatomedin-C is a hormone produced by the liver and other tissues, with effect on growth promoting activity and glucose metabolism (insulin-like activity). When people take Human Growth Hormone, their IGF-1 levels increase.
Testosterone is a male hormone (androgen) that affects sexual features and development. It is produced in large amounts by the testicles. The level of testosterone continues to rise during adulthood until it peaks around age 40, then it gradually decreases. Total testosterone levels in women decrease by approximately 30% after menopause. The most accurate level is best achieved if measured at 8 c'clock in the morning.
SHBG and testosterone levels may be ordered for an adult male to help determine the cause of infertility, a decreased sex drive, and erectile dysfunction, especially when total testosterone results are inconsistent with clinical signs. In women, SHBG and testosterone testing may be useful in helping to detect and evaluate excess testosterone production and/or decreased SHBG concentrations. The concentration of testosterone in the various free and bound forms is essentially a function of total testosterone concentration and the relative concentrations of SHBG and albumin. Therefore it can be predicted that increased SHBG will decrease the concentration of both free and bioavailable testosterone for a given total testosterone concentration.
This test is intended for use as an aid in the management of individuals following surgical or medical treatment of prostate cancer. Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced only by the prostate gland. The prostate gland is a doughnut-shaped gland located in a man's pelvis in the small space between the base of the penis and the bladder. The prostate makes the fluid that nourishes sperm and carries sperm during ejaculation. The amount of PSA produced by the prostate gland can be helpful in detecting prostate cancer very early. If you have prostate cancer.PSA is an important tool for following the progress of the cancer.
The basic chemistry panels used to determine overall health of a male. No food for 12 hours prior to testing.
The Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) test measures the level of DHT in the blood. DHT is naturally occurring androgen and aids in the development of the prostate and male gentalia. A significant deviation from the normal range may require further evaluation by your physician. Includes: Dihydrotestosterone (DHT), serum.
A semen analysis is used to determine whether a man might be infertile — unable to get a woman pregnant. This analysis evaluates certain characteristics of the semen as well as the sperm contained in the semen. This specimen may be collected in the privacy of your home and brought to PERSONALABS within one hour of collection. 2-7 days of sexual abstinence recommended.
This test is used to detect Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA). PSA is a protein produced only by the prostate gland. The prostate gland is a doughnut-shaped gland located in a man's pelvis in the small space between the base of the penis and the bladder. The prostate makes the fluid that nourishes sperm and carries sperm during ejaculation. The amount of PSA produced by the prostate gland can be helpful in detecting prostate cancer. This test is commonly used with the digital rectal exam to screen for prostate cancer. If you have prostate cancer a PSA can be an important tool used to follow the response to treatment for the cancer. In general, serum PSA levels increase due to physical changes to prostate architecture caused by trauma, infection, inflammation, prostate manipulation, benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) or malignancy. This test measures the percentage of free (uncomplexed) PSA relative to the total amount of PSA in men with serum PSA concentrations between 4.0-10.0 ng/mL. Alternatively, percent free PSA may be used to determine the relative risk of prostate cancer in individual men.
Uric acid is a waste product formed by the breakdown of certain types of amino acids called purines. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. Uric acid is also produced by the breakdown of the body's cells. If excess uric acid is being produced or if the kidneys are not able to remove it from the blood normally, the level of uric acid in the blood increases. High levels of uric acid in the blood can cause the excess uric acid to be deposited in the body's joints, leading to a form of arthritis called gout. Fast for at least 4 hours prior to testing.
The sedimentation rate (sed rate) measures how quickly red blood cells (erythrocytes) settle in a test tube. The more red cells that fall to the bottom of a special test tube in one hour, the higher the sed rate. When inflammation is present in the body, certain proteins cause red blood cells to stick together and fall more quickly than normal to the bottom of the tube. These proteins are produced by the liver and the immune system under many abnormal conditions such as an infection, an autoimmune disease and cancer.
The ASO titre evaluates symptoms that may be due to an illness caused by a previous streptococcal infection. It measures the number of antibodies present in the system.
The RA Factor test is primarily used to help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and to distinguish it from other forms of arthritis and other conditions that cause similar symptoms of joint pain, inflammation, and stiffness.
This test is used to detect autoimmune mediated causes of thyroid disease. This can include thyroiditis and Hashimoto thyroiditis.
This specific assay is used to confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Antibodies to DNA, either single- or double-stranded, are found primarily in systemic lupus erythematosus, and are important, but not necessary or sufficient for diagnosing that condition. Such antibodies are present in 80% to 90% of SLE cases. They are also present in smaller fractions of patients with other rheumatic disorders, and in chronic active hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis, and biliary cirrhosis.
This test is used to detect antibodies associated with SLE and mixed connective tissue disease. Anti-Sm is highly specific for SLE. Anti-RNP is found with a variety of rheumatoid diseases with high titers associated mainly with Mixed Connective Disorder.
This test aids in the diagnosis of Sjögren syndrome (especially with vasculitis) and lupus patients with Sjögren overlap syndrome.
This test aids in the diagnosis of acute and later stages Lyme disease. Lyme disease is an infection caused by the bite of an infected tick. Borrelia burgdorferi is the bacteria found in this tick that causes Lyme disease. symptoms associated with Lyme disease may include arthritis-like joint pain, fever, headache, muscle aches, fatigue, and stiff neck.
This test is used to study individuals with recurrent bacterial infections or allergy. However there are limitations to this procedure. This procedure is not suitable for the measurement of samples containing rheumatoid factor, paraproteins, other circulating immune complexes (CICs), or for lipemic or hemolyzed samples due to the unpredictable degree of nonspecific light scatter these sample types may generate. The results obtained from measuring IgG subclasses should not be used in assessing atopy in allergic individuals.
This test is used to evaluate spondyloarthritis and other disorders associated with the HLA-B27 antigen. HLA-B27 is strongly associated with ankylosing spondylitis (Marie-Strumpell disease). HLA-B27 shares homology with a Klebsiella protein and may imply a bacterial pathogenesis to ankylosing spondylitis. A patient with consistent clinical and radiographic findings who is B27-positive has a greater chance of having or developing ankylosing spondylitis than a negative patient. The antigen is not causative, however, and 10% of normal subjects are B27-positive. This test should not be considered a screening procedure for ankylosing spondylitis. The antigen is less strongly associated with Reiter syndrome and other arthritides than with ankylosing spondylitis. It has been linked with congenital deficiency of C4 and C2, and with adrenal hyperplasia.
This test is used for measuring the level of Complement C3. The quantitation of C3 is used to detect individuals with inborn deficiency of this factor or those with immunologic disease in whom complement is consumed at an increased rate. These include lupus erythematosus, chronic active hepatitis, certain chronic infections, poststreptococcal and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, and others. C3 comprises about 70% of the total protein in the complement system and is central to the activation of both the classical and alternate pathways of the immune system. This test is commonly used in conjuction with C4 and Total Complement( CH50).
This test is used to measure the level of serum Complement C4. C4 is used to detect individuals with inborn deficiency of this factor or those with immunologic disease in whom over activation of the immune system causes reduced levels of this complement factor. These diseases include lupus erythematosus, serum sickness, certain glomerulonephritides, chronic active hepatitis, and others. C4 is used only by the classical pathway, so that it is decreased only when this arm is activated. In diseases activating the alternate pathway alone, C4 levels will be normal. Total hemolytic activity (CH50), C3, and C4 are frequently decreased in a variety of conditions producing immune complexes. C4 levels are sensitive indicators of lupus disease activity.
This test is used to measure the levels of all Total Complement. CH50 can be used to assess the integrity of the classical pathway of the immune system. A normal CH50 level indicates that all the components of the C1 through C9 are present; however, even in the presence of a normal CH50, the absolute levels of some complement components (eg, C3 or C4) can be significantly (50% to 80%) lower than normal without affecting CH50 activity. This is because normal serum contains C3 and C4 in substantial excess of that required to yield a normal result for CH50. Depletion of alternative factors is not detected. For this reason, it may be necessary to measure individual complement components. The most common use of CH50 is to Evaluate and follow up SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus) patient's response to therapy; may predict disease flare in SLE; evaluate for complement component deficiency; evaluate complement activity in cases of immune complex disease, glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, SBE, cryoglobulinemia. The CH50 assay mainly evaluates the classical pathway.
This test is used to help monitor and diagnose multiple myeloma or any condition where protein production is affected. A principal use of this test is in the detection of monoclonal gammopathies. These are usually found in association with hemic neoplasms, especially multiple myeloma. They also occur in other benign and malignant conditions.
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies exhibiting pANCA or cANCA patterns are detected using indirect immunofluorescent antibody (IFA) techniques with a substrate of ethanol-fixed human neutrophils. Positive patient sera with perinuclear or nuclear patterns are repeated using a formalin-fixed substrate in order to differentiate the presence of true pANCA antibodies from possible interference with antinuclear antibodies (ANA).
Anticardiolipin antibodies are often present in individuals with the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Individuals with the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS) have an increased risk for stroke, myocardial infarction, venous thrombosis, thromboembolism, thrombocytopenia, and/or recurrent miscarriages. APS can be diagnosed with no underlying autoimmune disorder or it can be secondary to another autoimmune disorder.
Aid in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies.Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the United States. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
HLA DQ2 and DQ8 are statistically associated with celiac disease and are sometimes used as a test in support of that diagnosis.
Aid in the diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathies.Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1% of the population in the US. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time.
This assay is intended to be used as an aid to the diagnosis of Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough) and Bordetella parapertussis (whooping cough-like syndrome).The target for the B pertussis PCR reaction, a region of IS481, is also found in Bordetella holmesii. A false-positive result for B pertussis DNA may occur if B holmesii is present in the sample tested.
Differential diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis
Aid in the diagnosis of acute EBV infection (infectious mononucleosis).
Aid in the diagnosis of EBV infection (infectious mononucleosis).
Detection of Leiden (R506Q) mutation in factor V gene (OMIM 227400), causing increased risk of thrombosis.This test detects the factor V R506Q (Leiden) mutation and will help identify those individuals who are at increased risk of thrombosis; however, increased risk of thrombosis can be caused by a variety of genetic and nongenetic factors not screened for by this assay.
Diagnosis of homozygous and heterozygous fibrinogen deficiency as well as dysfibrinogenemia; diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation; fibrinogen levels can be used to assess the effectiveness of thrombolytic therapy. Fibrinogen is an acute-phase reactant and can often become significantly increased in conditions involving tissue damage, infection, or inflammation. Increased levels may be seen in smokers, during pregnancy, and in women taking oral contraceptives. Fibrinogen levels can be diminished in advanced liver disease. Very high levels of heparin, presence of direct thrombin inhibitors, or fibrin breakdown products may falsely reduce fibrinogen levels because they interfere with the rate of clot formation. Lipemia or hemolysis may interfere with this assay.
A blood test for CEA is often used as a tumor marker and helps determine the stage and extent of disease and the outlook in patients with cancer, especially gastrointestinal (GI) and, in particular, colorectal cancer. CEA is also used as a marker for other forms of cancer. It has been found helpful in monitoring patients with cancer of the rectum, lung, breast, liver, pancreas, stomach, and ovary.
This test is used to detect tumors that mark cancers of the liver, testes, and ovaries. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a substance naturally produced by the liver of a fetus. Normally, low levels of AFP can be found in the blood of a pregnant woman. No AFP (or only a very low level) is usually found in the blood of healthy men or healthy, nonpregnant women. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a substance naturally produced by the liver of a fetus. Normally.low levels of AFP can be found in the blood of a pregnant woman. No AFP (or only a very low level) is usually found in the blood of healthy men or healthy, nonpregnant women.
CA-19.9 is a tumor marker found in pancreatic cancer, stomach cancer, and cancer of the bile ducts. It can also be present in non-cancerous conditions such as pancreatitis, cirrhosis and inflammatory conditions of the bowel. This test can also be used to monitor a response to treatment for these cancerous conditions.
LASA is a useful adjunct in the management of a variety of malignancies. It is generally used with the combination with other tumor markers. Preliminary studies have demonstrated that LASA concentrations are indicative of disease status in patients with leukemia, lymphoma, or cancer of the breast, ovary or colorectum.
This test is used to assess tumor progression and prognosis. The procedure may be considered investigational and, therefore, should be discussed with your health care provider as it relates to ones own individual clinical situation.
This test is commonly used to check for tissue damage or monitor the progress of tissue damage. LDH is an enzyme that is present in tissue cells and is released when there is damage to the cells.
CYP2D6 is gene 6 within the D subfamily, in the 2 family of CYP450. It metabolizes 25% of all prescribed drugs, such as codeine, tricyclic antidepressants (eg, nortriptyline), SSRIs fluvoxamine, SSNRI venlafaxine, classical antipsychotics (eg, haloperidol), and beta-blockers. Specific variants in this gene also influence the metabolism of the breast cancer drug, tamoxifen, in postmenopausal women. Genetic polymorphisms of CYP2D6 could be used to predict the altered enzyme activity and address the potential effects of metabolized drugs. The cytochrome P450 (CYP450) enzymes catalyze the oxidation of many drugs and chemicals. CYP450 is a large enzyme family that has over 50 isoenzymes. Individual differences of cytochrome P450 activity can result in the total absence of the metabolism of certain drugs to ultrafast metabolism and can also lead to adverse drug reactions or a lack of therapeutic effect under standard therapy conditions.
This test is used to screen for colorectal cancer, diverticulitis, colitis, polyps, and adenomas. This test is performed in the privacy of your own home, you just need to pick up the FOBT kit from the nearest LabCorp Patient Service Center.
Manage patients with metastatic carcinoma of the breast.CA 27.29 is a highly polymorphic glycoprotein belonging to the mucin family and is the product of the muc-1 gene. It is most useful using serial measurements to monitor both the course of disease and response to therapy because the direct correlation of changing levels of CA 27.29 with clinical status. In patients with known metastases, a reduction in levels of this marker indicates a good response to treatment while increasing levels indicate resistance to therapy and progressive disease and justify further clinical evaluation and regular monitoring. It has also recently been shown that an elevation of CA 27.29 levels above the upper limit of normal in patients with no clinical evidence of disease is an early indicator of recurrence. An elevated serum CA 27.29 level in patients in remission of stage II or III breast cancer provided a positive predictive value of 83.3% for recurrent disease, with an average lead time of 5.3 months before recurrence was clinically established.
Glucose is a simple sugar that serves as the main source of energy for the body. Most of the body’s cells require glucose for energy production; brain and nervous system cells not only rely on glucose for energy, they can only function when glucose levels in the blood remain above a certain level. Fast for 12 hours prior to testing.
The Hemoglobin A1c test is used by diabetics to show how well controlled your blood sugar is during the preceding 3-month period. How does the test remember whether your blood sugar was high 3 months ago? Red blood cells live about 3 months before they die off and are replaced by new ones. During their life span, they carry glycated hemoglobin with them. By measuring the amount of Hemoglobin A1c you will then get an average of what the blood sugar has been over that period of time. The higher the Hemoglobin A1c the higher the average blood sugar. The higher the Hemoglobin A1c the more chances you will experience complications with your disease. This test can also serve as warning sign that you may be diabetic if you do not already have the disease.
Glycohemoglobin is a blood test that measures the amount of sugar (glucose) bound to hemoglobin. Normally, only a small percentage of hemoglobin in the blood (4% to 6%) has glucose bound to it. However, people with diabetes (or other conditions that increase their blood glucose levels) have more glycohemoglobin than normal.
A lipid panel usually measures 3 different kinds of lipids in the blood, all of which are related to a type of fat called cholesterol. The 3 kinds of lipids are LDL cholesterol, HDL cholesterol, and Triglycerides. The lipid panel also measures total cholesterol, which is the sum of all types of cholesterol in your blood. High levels of total cholesterol in your blood generally also increase your risk of heart disease. Because high cholesterol itself does not cause symptoms, you may not know that your cholesterol level is too high. Fast for 12-14 hours prior to testing.
The principal use of C-peptide is in the evaluation of hypoglycemia. Patients with insulin-secreting neoplasms have high levels of both C-peptide and endogenous insulin; in contrast, patients with factitious hypoglycemia will have low C-peptide levels in the presence of elevated (exogenous) serum insulin. C-peptide is also useful in evaluating residual beta cell function in insulin-dependent diabetics, many of whom have antibodies that interfere with insulin assays. Glucagon-stimulated C-peptide concentration has been shown to be a good discriminator between insulin-requiring and noninsulin-requiring diabetic patients. The diagnosis of islet cell tumor is supported by elevation of C-peptide when plasma glucose is =40 mg/dL. C-peptide levels are increased with renal failure. (C-peptide is normally excreted by the kidneys.) Instances of insulinoma have been described in which proinsulin was increased but insulin and C-peptide were not.
An oral glucose tolerance test is a series of blood glucose tests. A fasting glucose is collected. The patient should fast 12 to 14 hours before collection of specimens; then the patient drinks a standard amount of a glucose solution to "challenge" their system. This is followed by one or more additional glucose tests performed at specific intervals to track glucose levels over time. The OGTT may be ordered to help diagnose diabetes and as a follow-up test to an elevated blood glucose.
The lack of insulin causes the level of sugar in your blood to become abnormally high. When your body does not have enough insulin, it is hard for sugar to enter your cells. Sugar builds up in the blood. Too much sugar in your blood can cause many problems. These problems can be life-threatening if they are not treated. However, proper treatment can control your blood sugar level. A significant deviation from the normal range may require further evaluation by your physician. Fast for 12-14 hours prior to testing.
The Hemoglobin A1c test is used by diabetics to show how well controlled your blood sugar is during the preceding 3-month period. This Hemoglobin A1c also includes the estimated average glucose. How does the test remember whether your blood sugar was high 3 months ago? Red blood cells live about 3 months before they die off and are replaced by new ones. During their life span, they carry glycated hemoglobin with them. By measuring the amount of Hemoglobin A1c you will then get an average of what the blood sugar has been over that period of time. The higher the Hemoglobin A1c the higher the average blood sugar. The higher the Hemoglobin A1c the more chances you will experience complications with your disease. This test can also serve as warning sign that you may be diabetic if you do not already have the disease.
This screening panel checks for a variety of substances in the environment, such as pollen, dust mites and animal hair that typically cause an allergic reaction. This panel is designed specifically for the Southeast United States.
This test measures levels of TDI, MDI, and HDI. TDI, MDI, and HDI are three of the most frequently used isocyanates in industry. The isocyanates are used primarily as starting materials for a variety of manufacturing processes, including the production of plastics, polyurethane, foams, and electrical wire insulation. Isocyanates are also common components of paints and other durable and protective finishes, adhesives, and elastomers in automobile bumpers, printing rolls, and coated fabrics. Exposure can occur at any stage from the initial manufacturer of the isocyanates to their final use in various production processes. Exposure can also occur from the application of paints and polyurethanes, from the handling and machining of foams, and from the combustion of these materials. Exposure to isocyanates may cause chemical bronchitis with initial symptoms of throat irritation, laryngitis, coughing, and chest pain or tightness. Asthma (with symptoms of wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath) may also follow exposure to isocyanates. Other effects associated with isocyanate exposure are hypersensitive pneumonitis, chronic pulmonary disease, and contact dermatitis (following direct skin contact).
This panel uses the measurement of specific IgE levels for the diagnosis of allergic disease and to define the allergens involved. This profile is designed for children three years of age and above. It can be difficult to diagnose allergies in young children, since they are often unable to verbalize their symptoms. Moreover, the symptoms of allergic disease can overlap with those of bacterial and viral infections that are common in children. Testing for allergen-specific IgE levels can be useful in assessing the potential that an atopic disposition might play a role in fostering chronic sinusitis or dermatitis in these patients. Accurate diagnosis of the allergen sensitivity can allow the clinician to develop an optimal therapeutic approach. Early intervention can dramatically improve the child's symptoms and can reduce the chances of developing asthma in the future.
This panel is used to detect possible IgE-mediated responses to various foods. The foods included are beef; chocolate; corn; egg (whole); shell fish; cow's milk; peanut; pork; soybean and wheat.
Description:Acid anhydrides are strong respiratory irritants known to produce hypersensitivity pulmonary disease, often beginning as hypersensitivity pneumonitis Test includes:Phthalic anhydride-specific IgE; trimellitic anhydride-specific IgE
Dermatophagoides farinae; egg white; milk (cow); soybean; wheat. Measurement of specific IgE levels can be useful for the diagnosis of allergic disease and to define the allergens involved. This profile is designed for children who are younger than three years of age.
Alternaria tenuis; cat hair (standardized); Dermatophagoides farinae; ragweed, common; Timothy grass.Measurement of specific IgE levels can be useful for the diagnosis of allergic disease and to define the allergens involved. This profile is designed for children who are older than six years of age.
Codfish; cow's milk; egg white; peanut; soybean; wheat.
Alternaria tenuis; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Dermatophagoides farinae (dust mite); Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus (dust mite); dog epithelia; elm; English plantain; Kentucky bluegrass (June grass); oak; ragweed, short
Alternaria tenuis; Aspergillus fumigatus; Aureobasidium pullulans; Candida albicans; Cladosporium herbarum; Epicoccum purpurascens; Fusarium moniliforme; Helminthosporium halodes; Hormodendrum hordei; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; Phoma betae; Stemphylium botryosum
IgE antibodies directed against the major seasonal allergens (grasses, trees, weeds) and the most common perennials (Note: This is a screening profile and does not reflex to individual allergen testing.)Evaluate patients for potential IgE-mediated allergy (atopic disease)
States of CT, MA, ME, NH, NY, RI, and VT: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; American hazelnut; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; white ash; white birch; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States of IL, IA, MO, and Southwestern MN: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States of Eastern CO, KS, NE, ND, and SD: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; walnut; white ash; white mulberry; white oak; wormwood
States of Eastern MT, Western CO, and WY: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; walnut; white ash; white mulberry; white oak; wormwood
States of Central OR, Eastern WA, Northeastern CA, Northeastern ID, and Western MT: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; Russian thistle; salt bush; sheep sorrel; spruce; Stemphylium botryosum; white oak; wormwood
States of Coastal OR, WA; and Northern CA: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; redwood; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; walnut; white birch; white oak
States of Eastern OR, NV, Southeastern WA, Southern ID, and UT: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; spruce; Stemphylium botryosum; white birch; white oak; wingscale; wormwood; yellow dock
States of AZ, Southeastern CA, Southwestern TX, and Western NM: Acacia; Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; eucalyptus; iodine bush; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; olive; pecan; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; rabbit bush; ragweed, western; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; white mulberry; white oak; wingscale
State of AK: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; American hazelnut; Aspergillus fumigatus; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; ragweed, short; redwood; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; timothy; walnut; white birch; white oak
States of HI: Acacia; Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; cocklebur; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; eucalyptus; Kentucky bluegrass; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; olive; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; queen palm; ragweed, slender; salt bush; Stemphylium botryosum; white mulberry
States of Costal CA: Acacia; Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; eucalyptus; Mucor racemosus; nettle; olive; pecan; Penicillium notatum; perennial rye; pigweed, rough; ragweed, western; Russian thistle; salt bush; smooth broome; Stemphylium botryosum; walnut; western sycamore; white birch; white mulberry; white oak
States of DE, MD, NJ; Coastal FL, GA, NC, SC, and VA: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; sycamore; timothy; white birch; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States of NC, PA, SC, VA, and WV: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; locust; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; Stemphylium botryosum; white birch; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States of Middle FL: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Baccharis; Bahia grass; bayberry; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; coastal live oak; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; dog fennel; English plantain; eucalyptus; Johnson grass; lamb's quarters; mango; Mucor racemosus; Penicillium notatum; perennial rye; queen palm; ragweed, short; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; white mulberry
States of Coastal AL, LA, TX, MS; Northern FL; and Southern GA: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; sycamore; timothy; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States of AR, Eastern NM, Northern LA, OK, and TX: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; mesquite; mountain cedar; Mucor racemosus; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; white ash; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak; wingscale
States of IN, KY, Northern AL, Northern GA, Northern MS, OH, and TN: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; American hazelnut; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bahia grass; Bermuda grass; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; locust; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; red maple; sheep sorrel; Stemphylium botryosum; sweet gum; sycamore; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
States of MI, MN, and WI: Alternaria tenuis; American cockroach; American elm; Aspergillus fumigatus; Bermuda grass; box elder; cat hair (standardized); Cladosporium herbarum; Dermatophagoides farinae; Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus; dog epithelium; English plantain; Johnson grass; Kentucky bluegrass; Mucor racemosus; mugwort; nettle; Penicillium notatum; pigweed, rough; ragweed, short; red cedar; Russian thistle; sheep sorrel; spruce; Stemphylium botryosum; sycamore; white hickory; white mulberry; white oak
Detect sensitivity to latex. Latex has been shown to cause sensitivity reactions. Hypersensitivity reactions following exposure to latex are rapidly increased, most notably in the past few years. Latex is emerging as a potentially serious health problem largely because of the frequency by which individuals come in contact with latex and products containing latex
Oxcarbazepine is an antiepileptic drug, indicated for use as monotherapy or adjunctive therapy in the treatment of partial seizures in adults with epilepsy. It is used in adjunctive therapy in epileptic children between the ages of four and 16.Oxcarbazepine is the prodrug for its active metabolite, 10-hydroxy-carbamazepine (MHD). MHD reaches maximal serum concentrations in three to five hours after oral ingestion and is 40% bound to protein. The elimination half-life is 8 to 15 hours. Co-administration of other antiepileptic drugs (eg, carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone) causes decreases in MHD serum levels.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of alcohol. This is only a check for recent consumption of alcohol and will not detect impairment.
A screen for recent use of amphetamine or methamphetamine.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of barbiturates. These drugs are Amobarbital, Butabutal, Pentobarbital, Phenobarbital and Secobarbital.
A screen for recent use of benzodiazapines. This category of drugs include chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and diazepam (Valium).
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of marijuana.
This test will screen your urine for recent cocaine use.
This test will screen your urine for recent use of methadone.
This screening test will check your urine for recent use of opiates. These drugs include codeine or products containing codeine, heroin and/or morphine.
This screening panel is a blood test that will detect recent use of the 7 most common recreational drugs used in today's society. This list includes amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids (marijuana), cocaine, opiates, and phencyclidine (PCP).
This screening panel is a urine test that will detect recent use of the 10 most common recreational drugs used in today's society. This list includes alchohol, amphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cannabinoids (marijuana), cocaine, methadone, opiates, propoxyphene (darvon), and phencyclidine (PCP).
This profile is used to monitor exposure to methyl ethyl kettle, methyl n-butyl ketone, and methyl isobutyl ketone.
This test measures the amount of lithium in the blood. Lithium as lithium carbonate is used as a psychoactive agent in the treatment of manic depressive disorders. Lithium therapy demands daily monitoring of serum lithium levels until the proper dose schedule is determined. Abnormal high levels never occur suddenly. It takes several days to a week before full-blown symptoms develop, an individual will experience lethargy, drowsiness, tremor, muscle twitching, difficulty speaking, loss of appetite along with vomiting or diarrhea.
Amphetamines; barbiturates; benzodiazepines; cannabinoids (marijuana); cocaine metabolite; opiates (codeine, morphine only); phencyclidine (PCP)
This test is used to measure nicotine and its metabolites to monitor success of smoking cessation programs, detect passive exposure, and evaluate nontobacco nicotine exposure.
This test is used to measure the drug level of Phenytoin (Dilantin). Phenytoin is useful in generalized tonic-clonic, complex partial, and simple partial seizures and frequently is chosen for initial therapy, particularly in adults. This drug also may prevent seizures initially in high-risk patients with head trauma.
This test is used to monitor exposure to xylenes. The profile includes Creatinine, urine; methylhippuric acids, total, urine; methylhippuric acids:creatinine ratio; xylenes (o-, m-, p-xylene), blood.
Valproate (valproic acid; divalproex sodium, a compound containing sodium valproate and valproic acid) controls absence, myoclonic, and tonic-clonic seizures in generalized, idiopathic, and symptomatic epilepsy. It is most useful in typical absence seizures. Valproate is as effective as ethosuximide in patients with absence seizures alone and is variably effective in atypical absence seizures. Valproate is an alternative drug in the treatment of complex partial seizures but may be considered for initial therapy in patients with partial and secondarily generalized seizures. Valproate is the drug of choice in myoclonic epilepsy, with or without generalized tonic-clonic seizures, including juvenile myoclonic epilepsy of Janz, that begins in adolescence or early adulthood.
This heterocyclic (iminostilbene) compound has potent antiepileptic properties and is effective alone or with other antiepileptic drugs in partial seizures, especially complex partial seizures, generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and combinations of these seizure types. Carbamazepine generally is ineffective for absence, myoclonic, and atonic seizures. In children with symptomatic generalized epilepsy and continuous spike-and-wave discharge, these seizure types may develop or tonic-clonic seizures may increase in frequency with use of carbamazepine. It has also been noted1 that the dose of carbamazepine cannot be used as a reliable index for predicting the serum concentration of either total or free carbamazepine serum concentrations in children with epilepsy. Comparative clinical trial data indicate that patients with partial seizures may tolerate carbamazepine better than phenobarbital and primidone, but individual responses vary. Many clinicians consider carbamazepine a drug of choice for initial therapy in idiopathic and symptomatic localization-related epilepsies, especially in children and women. This drug is increasingly preferred to phenobarbital in pediatric patients because it has less effect on cognition and behavior. It is reported to have psychotropic activity that may increase alertness and elevate mood in depressed epileptic patients, but not in otherwise normal patients. Mental improvements may be due to substitution of carbamazepine for sedative drugs, control of seizures, or a direct psychotropic effect.
Phenobarbital, a long-acting barbiturate, is effective in generalized tonic-clonic and simple partial seizures. Higher plasma concentrations may be required to control the latter. Complex partial seizures do not respond as well, and absence seizures are not relieved and may be exacerbated. Phenobarbital frequently is used in the treatment of neonatal seizures and may be the initial drug employed in young children; however, because of increasing concern about adverse neuropsychological reactions to sedative/hypnotic antiepileptic drugs, many neurologists prefer less sedating drugs, such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, or valproate. The prophylactic use of phenobarbital in infants with febrile seizures has been challenged. Phenobarbital also is useful in seizures caused by barbiturate withdrawal in dependent individuals. The sodium salt is administered parenterally as part of the treatment regimen for status epilepticus.
Monitor exposure to benzene, ethyl benzene, styrene, toluene, and xylenes.Aromatic solvent toxicity is characterized by CNS depressant effects (eg, irritation, nausea, dizziness, unconsciousness, etc). Severity is dependent on the intensity and duration of the exposure. Damage to the hematopoietic system has also been evidenced. Benzene is listed as a potential carcinogen. Aromatic solvents function commercially in numerous applications, including industrial solvents and chemical intermediates. Aromatic solvents, such as benzene, toluene, and xylene can also be found in paints, paint thinners, and glues. Blood is the preferred specimen for measuring acute or recent exposure to the aromatic solvents.
Monitor chronic exposure to arsenic. Arsenic poisoning of a chronic nature is often evidenced by cardiovascular abnormalities and neurological disorders. Acute exposures to high concentrations of arsenic may be evidenced by the following signs and symptoms: •Gastrointestinal: Severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, bloody or rice-water diarrhea •Cardiovascular and respiratory: Hypotension, shock, ventricular arrhythmia, congestive heart failure, pulmonary edema •Neurologic: Lightheadedness, headache, weakness, lethargy, delirium, encephalopathy, convulsions, coma, sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy •Hepatic and renal: Elevated liver enzymes, hematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, acute tubular necrosis, renal cortical necrosis •Hematologic: Anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, disseminated intravascular coagulation •Other: Rhabdomyolysis, garlic odor on breath, delayed appearance of Mees lines.Patient must avoid all seafood for 72 hours prior to collection. Seafood consumption two to three days prior to specimen collection can markedly elevate levels of total arsenic in urine. This dietary form of arsenic is nontoxic and is comprised primarily of arsenobetaine and arsenocholine. Inorganic arsenic is used for industrial exposure monitoring.
Monitor recent or acute exposure to arsenic.Blood levels of arsenic have a short half-life and are useful only for monitoring recent or acute exposure. Urine arsenic measurement is a better measure of arsenic poisoning. In addition to pesticides, rodenticides, weed killers, paint, and wood preservatives contain arsenic.
Monitor recent or acute exposure to cadmium.Cadmium poisoning through industrial exposure to inorganic cadmium fumes may produce fatigue, coughing, chest pain, a burning sensation in the throat, and renal damage. The prognosis of persons with cadmium-induced renal dysfunction is unfavorable, with urinary ß-microglobulin and urinary protein the most important factors. Inhalation of cadmium fumes can lead to pneumonia with acute exposure and emphysema with chronic exposure.
This is a blood test to monitor immunosuppressive therapy following organ transplant. This is to check the levels of Sirolimus (Rapamune).
This test is used to detect levels of buprenorphine (Suboxone) in the urine. Buprenorphine (Suboxone) is an opioid that is used to treat addiction to heroin and narcotic painkillers.
Serum iron measures the amount of iron in the blood to evaluate iron metabolism in the body. Iron (Fe) is a necessary mineral for the proper function of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen. It is also needed for proper muscle and organ function. About three-fourths of the body's iron is bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells, while the rest is either bound to other proteins (transferrin in blood or ferritin in bone marrow) or stored in other body tissues. Iron deficiency in men and women past menopause usually is related to abnormal bleeding. Fasting, morning sample preferred.
Vitamin B12 is a collection of molecules found in the body. Vitamin B12 is important for the normal functioning of the brain and nervous system and for the formation of blood. It is normally involved in the metabolism of every cell of the body, especially affecting the DNA synthesis and regulation but also fatty acid synthesis and energy production. A deficiency in B12 can also result in varying degrees of neuropathy, nerve damage that can cause tingling and numbness in the patient’s hands and feet. Fasting is preferred prior to testing.
Folic acid (folate) is a form of the water-soluble Vitamin B9. Folic acid is necessary for the production and maintenance of new cells, which is especially important during periods of rapid cell division and growth such as infancy and pregnancy. Folate is needed to replicate DNA. Thus folate deficiency hinders DNA synthesis and cell division, affecting most clinically the bone marrow, a site of rapid cell turnover.
The Prothrombin Time (PT) is the most commonly used test for monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy. The INR is also calculated.
This test is used for an evaluation of abnormal bleeding or excessive bruising. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test measures the functionality of the common pathways of the coagulation cascade. The aPTT is the length of time that it takes for clotting to occur in a test tube when reagents that are added to plasma. When the sample takes longer than normal to clot, the PTT is said to be “prolonged."